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January 12, 2018

CSSLP tutorials(71 to 80) for IT examinee: Jan 2018 Edition

Testking offers free demo for CSSLP exam. "Certified Information Systems Security Professional", also known as CSSLP exam, is a ISC2 Certification. This set of posts, Passing the ISC2 CSSLP exam, will help you answer those questions. The CSSLP Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. 100% real ISC2 CSSLP exams and revised by experts!

Q71. Which of the following technologies is used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices?

A. Hypervisor

B. Grid computing

C. Code signing

D. Digital rights management

Answer: D

Explanation: Digital rights management (DRM) is an access control technology used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices. It describes the technology that prevents the uses of digital content that were not desired or foreseen by the content provider. DRM does

not refer to other forms of copy protection which can be circumvented without modifying the file or device, such as serial numbers or keyfiles. It can also refer to restrictions associated with specific instances of digital works or devices. Answer: C is incorrect. Code signing is the process of digitally signing executables and scripts in order to confirm the software author, and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it is signed by use of a cryptographic hash. Answer: A is incorrect. A hypervisor is a virtualization technique that allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating systems and checks their execution process. It provides isolation to the host's resources. The hypervisor is installed on server hardware. Answer: B is incorrect. Grid computing refers to the combination of computer resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.


Q72. Which of the following are the types of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. Physical

B. Technical

C. Administrative

D. Automatic

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation: Security guards, locks on the gates, and alarms come under physical access control. Policies and procedures implemented by an organization come under administrative access control. IDS systems, encryption, network segmentation, and antivirus controls come under technical access control. Answer: D is incorrect. There is no such type of access control as automatic control.


Q73. Which of the following vulnerabilities occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions?

A. Insecure cryptographic storage

B. Malicious file execution

C. Insecure communication

D. Injection flaw

Answer: B

Explanation: Malicious file execution is a vulnerability that occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions. This leads to arbitrary remote and hostile data being included, processed, and invoked by the Web server. Malicious file execution can be prevented by using an indirect object reference map, input validation, or explicit taint checking mechanism. Answer: D is incorrect. Injection flaw occurs when data is sent to an interpreter as a part of command or query. Answer: A is incorrect. Insecure cryptographic storage occurs when applications have failed to encrypt datAnswer: C is incorrect. Insecure communication occurs when applications have failed to encrypt network traffic.


Q74. The IAM/CA makes certification accreditation recommendations to the DAA. The DAA issues accreditation determinations. Which of the following are the accreditation determinations issued by the DAA? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. IATT

B. IATO

C. DATO

D. ATO

E. ATT

Answer: A,B,C,D

Explanation: The DAA issues one of the following four accreditation determinations: Approval to Operate (ATO): It is an authorization of a DoD information system to process, store, or transmit information. Interim Approval to Operate (IATO): It is a temporary approval to operate based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Interim Approval to Test (IATT): It is a temporary approval to conduct system testing based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Denial of Approval to Operate (DATO): It is a determination that a DoD information system cannot operate because of an inadequate IA design or failure to implement assigned IA Controls. Answer: E is incorrect. No such type of accreditation determination exists.


Q75. You are the project manager of the NNN project for your company. You and the project team are working together to plan the risk responses for the project. You feel that the team has successfully completed the risk response planning and now you must initiate what risk process it is. Which of the following risk processes is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased?

A. Quantitative risk analysis

B. Risk identification

C. Risk response implementation

D. Qualitative risk analysis

Answer: A

Explanation: The quantitative risk analysis process is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased. Answer: D is incorrect. Qualitative risk analysis is not repeated after the plan risk response process. Answer: B is incorrect. Risk identification is an ongoing process that happens throughout the project. Answer: C is incorrect. Risk response implementation is not a project management process.


Q76. In which of the following architecture styles does a device receive input from connectors and generate transformed outputs?

A. N-tiered

B. Heterogeneous

C. Pipes and filters

D. Layered

Answer: C

Explanation: In the pipes and filters architecture style, a device receives input from connectors and generates transformed outputs. A pipeline has a series of processing elements in which the output of each element works as an input of the next element. A little amount of buffering is provided between the two successive elements.


Q77. Della work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. A threat with a dollar value of $250,000 is expected to happen in her project and the frequency of threat occurrence per year is

0.01. What will be the annualized loss expectancy in her project?

A. $2,000

B. $2,500 

C. $3,510 

D. $3,500

Answer: B

Explanation: The annualized loss expectancy in her project will be $2,500. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the annually expected financial loss to an organization from a threat. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as follows: ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Here, it is as follows:

ALE = SLE * ARO

= 250,000 * 0.01

= 2,500

Answer: D, C, and A are incorrect. These are not valid answers.


Q78. You work as a project manager for a company. The company has started a new security software project. The software configuration management will be used throughout the lifecycle of the project. You are tasked to modify the functional features and the basic logic of the software and then make them compatible to the initial design of the project. Which of the following procedures of the configuration management will you follow to accomplish the task?

A. Configuration status accounting

B. Configuration control

C. Configuration audits

D. Configuration identification

Answer: B

Explanation: Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration audits confirm that the configuration identification for a configured item is accurate, complete, and will meet specified program needs. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle.


Q79. You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?

A. Qualitative risk analysis

B. Historical information

C. Rolling wave planning

D. Quantitative analysis

Answer: A

Explanation: Qualitative risk analysis is the best answer as it is a fast and low-cost approach to analyze the risk impact and its effect. It can promote certain risks onto risk response planning. Qualitative Risk Analysis uses the likelihood and impact of the identified risks in a fast and cost-effective manner. Qualitative Risk Analysis establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or Risk Response Plan by evaluating the precedence of risks with a concern to impact on the project's scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. The qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine proportion of effect and theoretical response. The inputs to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process are: Organizational process assets Project Scope Statement Risk Management Plan Risk Register Answer: B is incorrect. Historical information can be helpful in the qualitative risk analysis, but it is not the best answer for the question as historical information is not always available (consider new projects). Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis is in-depth and often requires a schedule and budget for the analysis. Answer: C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is not a valid answer for risk analysis processes.


Q80. DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. System Definition

B. Validation

C. Identification

D. Accreditation

E. Verification

F. Re-Accreditation

Answer: A,B,E,F

Explanation: The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process), in 2006. DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8510.01 establishes a standard DoD-wide process with a set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit an Automated Information System (AIS) that will maintain the Information Assurance (IA) posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) throughout the system's life cycle. DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. It identifies four phases: 1.System Definition 2.Verification 3.Validation 4.Re-Accreditation



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