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Q271. Which of the following risks could IT management be mitigating by removing an all-in-one device? A. Continuity of operations B. Input validation C. Single point of failure D. Single sign on Answer: C Explanation: The major disadvantage of combining everything into one, although you do this to save costs, is to include a potential single point of failure and the reliance/dependence on

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Q591. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) receives an anonymous threatening message that says “beware of the 1st of the year”. The CIO suspects the message may be from a former disgruntled employee planning an attack. Which of the following should the CIO be concerned with? A. Smurf Attack B. Trojan C. Logic bomb D. Virus Answer: C Explanation: A logic bomb is a piece of code intentio

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Q581. The helpdesk reports increased calls from clients reporting spikes in malware infections on their systems. Which of the following phases of incident response is MOST appropriate as a FIRST response? A. Recovery B. Follow-up C. Validation D. Identification E. Eradication F. Containment Answer: D Explanation: To be able to respond to the incident of malware infection you need to know

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Q121. The method to provide end users of IT systems and applications with requirements related to acceptable use, privacy, new threats and trends, and use of social networking is: A. Security awareness training. B. BYOD security training. C. Role-based security training. D. Legal compliance training. Answer: A Explanation: Security awareness and training are critical to the success of a se

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Q401. Which of the following security strategies allows a company to limit damage to internal systems and provides loss control? A. Restoration and recovery strategies B. Deterrent strategies C. Containment strategies D. Detection strategies Answer: C Explanation: Containment strategies is used to limit damages, contain a loss so that it may be controlled, much like quarantine, and loss in

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Q541. A security administrator has installed a new KDC for the corporate environment. Which of the following authentication protocols is the security administrator planning to implement across the organization? A. LDAP B. RADIUS C. Kerberos D. XTACACS Answer: C Explanation: The fundamental component of a Kerberos solution is the key distribution centre (KDC), which is responsible for verif

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Q521. Which of the following describes purposefully injecting extra input during testing, possibly causing an application to crash? A. Input validation B. Exception handling C. Application hardening D. Fuzzing Answer: D Explanation: Fuzzing is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data to as inputs to a computer program. The program is then mon

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Q411. An administrator needs to submit a new CSR to a CA. Which of the following is a valid FIRST step? A. Generate a new private key based on AES. B. Generate a new public key based on RSA. C. Generate a new public key based on AES. D. Generate a new private key based on RSA. Answer: D Explanation: Before creating a CSR, the applicant first generates a key pair, keeping the private key se

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Q471. Which of the following data security techniques will allow Matt, an IT security technician, to encrypt a system with speed as its primary consideration? A. Hard drive encryption B. Infrastructure as a service C. Software based encryption D. Data loss prevention Answer: A Explanation: Disk and device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the

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Q61. Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies? A. Design reviews B. Honeypot C. Vulnerability scanner D. Code reviews Answer: B Explanation: A honeypot is a system whose purpose it is to be attacked. An administrator can watch and study the attack to research current attack methodologies. According to the Wepopedia.com, a Honeypot

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Q221. Which of the following techniques can be used to prevent the disclosure of system information resulting from arbitrary inputs when implemented properly? A. Fuzzing B. Patch management C. Error handling D. Strong passwords Answer: C Explanation: Exception handling is an aspect of secure coding. When errors occur, the system should revert back to a secure state. This must be coded into

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Q341. Purchasing receives a phone call from a vendor asking for a payment over the phone. The phone number displayed on the caller ID matches the vendor’s number. When the purchasing agent asks to call the vendor back, they are given a different phone number with a different area code. Which of the following attack types is this? A. Hoax B. Impersonation C. Spear phishing D. Whaling Answe

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Q431. Which of the following is a security risk regarding the use of public P2P as a method of collaboration? A. Data integrity is susceptible to being compromised. B. Monitoring data changes induces a higher cost. C. Users are not responsible for data usage tracking. D. Limiting the amount of necessary space for data storage. Answer: A Explanation: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networking is commonl

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2017 Apr SY0-401 downloadQ571. HOTSPOT For each of the given items, select the appropriate authentication category from the dropdown choices. Instructions: When you have completed the simu-lation, please select the Done button to submit. Answer: Q572. FTP/S uses which of the following TCP ports by default? A. 20 and 21 B. 139 and 445 C. 443 and 22 D. 989 and 990 Answer: D Explanation:

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